Page 1
1. Paramedics
operate under the license of a:
a. medical director.
b. hospital administrator.
c. EMS director.
d. field supervisor.
2. All of the
following are part of the six "rights" of drug administration EXCEPT:
a. right person.
b. right drug.
c. right brand.
d. right route.
3. Which of
the following is the simplest and most effective form of infection control?
a. donning gloves
b. washing hands
c. wearing a face mask
d. using eye protection
4. Administering
an oral medication to a patient who cannot support his airway may result in:
a. poor absorption of the medication.
b. the need to repeat the dose of medication.
c. aspiration into the lungs.
d. harmful substances after the drug is
metabolized.
5. Medications
that are combined with fat or oil are:
a. elixirs.
b. suspensions.
c. syrups.
d. emulsions.
6. The most
accurate means of administering liquid-based oral medications is the:
a. souffle cup.
b. medicine dropper.
c. teaspoon.
d. oral syringe.
7. All of the
following are parts of a typical nebulizer EXCEPT a(n):
a. mouthpiece.
b. nasal tubing.
c. relief valve.
d. oxygen port.
Page 2
8. In order
for a nebulizer to be effective, the patient must have:
a. decreased tidal volume and slow respiratory
rate.
b. increased tidal volume and slow respiratory
rate.
c. adequate tidal volume and respiratory rate.
d. adequate tidal volume and an increased
respiratory rate.
9. Which of
the following is NOT an advantage of a nebulizer or metered dose inhaler?
a. Less medication is needed because it reaches
its exact site of action.
b. Implementing or discontinuing drug delivery is
easy.
c. It is a less expensive method of drug delivery
for an EMS system.
d. Supplemental oxygen administered simultaneously
can assist a hypoxic patient.
10. When
administering medication through an endotracheal tube, the amount of medication
mixed with normal saline should create a solution equal to:
a. 8 ml.
b. 10 ml.
c. 12 ml.
d. 14 ml.
11. Which of
the following medications should NOT be administered via a gastric tube?
a. enteric-coated analgesics
b. liquid analgesics
c. capsule analgesics
d. tablet analgesics
12. When
administering tablets through a gastric tube, they should be crushed with how
much warm water?
a. 10 cc
b. 20 cc
c. 30 cc
d. 40 cc
13. Administration
of rectal medication too high in the rectum may result in the:
a. medication being absorbed by the veins.
b. medication being absorbed by the portal
circulation.
c. medication not being absorbed at all.
d. medication causing anal/rectal irritation.
Page 3
14. What is the
maximum solution administered for a subcutaneous injection?
a. Ý5 cc
b. 1 cc
c. 1.5 cc
d. 2 cc
15. All of the
following are acceptable sites for intramuscular injection EXCEPT the:
a. rectus femoris.
b. vastus lateralis.
c. trapezius.
d. deltoid.
16. An
intramuscular injection is given at a:
a. 15ø angle.
b. 45ø angle.
c. 90ø angle.
d. 100ø angle.
17. The two
major components of a syringe are the:
a. barrel and plunger.
b. barrel and needle.
c. plunger and needle.
d. plunger and cap.
18. A needle's
gauge describes its:
a. length.
b. diameter.
c. sharpness.
d. volume.
19. When
administering a medication from an ampule, you should verify all of the
following on the label EXCEPT:
a. volume.
b. medication name.
c. dose and concentration.
d. expiration.
20. One
advantage of the nonconstituted drug vial is that nonconstituted drugs:
a. are easier to administer.
b. can be used up to one year after expiration
date.
c. are less expensive.
d. extend the viability of drugs that are unstable
in liquid form.
Page 4
21. Unlike a
non-prefilled syringe, the prefilled syringe does NOT have a:
a. needle.
b. barrel.
c. plunger.
d. cap.
22. Parenteral
delivery of a medication is more predictable because the medication:
a. is absorbed at a slower rate.
b. solution is measured more accurately than
external medications.
c. bypasses the digestive tract.
d. can be given over a longer period of time.
23. Sublingual
drugs are absorbed rapidly because the:
a. patient chews them quickly.
b. sublingual region is extremely vascular.
c. drugs are typically smaller than in the oral
route of administration.
d. medication is given when the patient is awake
and alert.
24. Ocular
medications should be placed on the:
a. conjunctival sac.
b. inner canthus.
c. outer canthus.
d. pupil.
25. All of the
following reduce the risk of accidental needle sticks EXCEPT:
a. minimizing the tasks performed in the back of a
moving ambulance.
b. dropping sharps on the floor for disposal after
the ambulance has stopped.
c. disposing of used sharps in a sharps container.
d. recapping needles only as a last resort.
26. Without
adequate airway maintenance and ventilation, the patient can succumb to brain
injury or death in how many minutes?
a. 2-4 minutes
b. 4-6 minutes
c. 6-10 minutes
d. 10-12 minutes
27. Manual
maneuvers used to open a patient's airway are very effective and __________.
a. often neglected in the prehospital setting
b. contraindicated in the trauma patients
c. difficult to learn
d. need specialized equipment
Page 5
28. An oxygen
deficiency is called:
a. hypoxia.
b. hypoxic drive.
c. hypercarbia.
d. hypoxemia.
29. A fine,
bubbling sound heard on inspiration and associated with fluid in the smaller
bronchioles is called:
a. gurgling.
b. snoring.
c. crackles.
d. rhonchi.
30. A drop in
blood pressure of greater than 10 torr during inspiration is called:
a. anoxia.
b. Biot's respirations.
c. pulsus paradoxus.
d. central neurogenic hyperventilation.
31. A
high-pitched noise while inhaling during a partial airway obstruction is known
as:
a. stridor.
b. cough.
c. dyphonia.
d. dyspnea.
32. What is an
indication of complete airway obstruction?
a. The patient cannot breath.
b. The patient cannot cough.
c. The patient cannot speak.
d. all of the above
33. Which of
the following is the MOST common cause of airway obstruction?
a. foreign bodies
b. the tongue
c. trauma
d. laryngeal spasm
34. Which is
the MOST commonly aspirated material causing airway obstruction?
a. meat
b. small toys
c. teeth
d. vomitus
Page 6
35. The proper
order for a respiratory assessment is:
a. palpation, auscultation, inspection.
b. inspection, auscultation, palpation.
c. palpation, inspection, auscultation.
d. auscultation, inspection, palpation.
36. Asymmetrical
chest wall movement that lessens respiratory efficiency may suggest a:
a. pneumothorax.
b. partial airway obstruction.
c. flail chest.
d. pulmonary embolism.
37. Which of
the following can mimic poor airway compliance?
a. flail chest
b. upper airway obstruction
c. pulmonary embolism
d. laryngeal spasm
38. The
simplest airway management technique in a patient without suspected cervical
spine injury is:
a. endotracheal intubation.
b. modified jaw-thrust maneuver.
c. head-tilt/chin lift maneuver.
d. Sellick's maneuver.
39. The airway
management technique to use on a patient with a suspected cervical spine injury
is:
a. endotracheal intubation.
b. modified jaw-thrust maneuver.
c. head-tilt/chin lift maneuver.
d. Sellick's maneuver.
40. Which of
the following airway adjuncts prevents the tongue from falling back to occlude
the airway?
a. nasal cannula
b. oropharyngeal airway
c. suction catheter
d. laryngoscope
41. Applying
pressure on the cricoid cartilage to ease endotracheal intubation is called:
a. the modified jaw-thrust maneuver.
b. the head-tilt/chin lift maneuver.
c. the Heimlich maneuver.
d. Sellick's maneuver.
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42. The basic
technique used to remove blood, other secretions, or vomit from a patient's
airway is:
a. suctioning.
b. debridement.
c. distention.
d. compression.
43. The length
of a suction catheter is measured by the distance from the patient's:
a. nose to lips.
b. nose to lips plus 5 cm.
c. earlobe to lips.
d. earlobe to lips and adding 5 cm.
44. To
facilitate suctioning a patient in the field, the suction vacuum should have a
flow rate of _____ when the tube is open.
a. 20 liters per minute
b. 30 liters per minute
c. 40 liters per minute
d. 50 liters per minute
45. Which of
the following is an indication to suction a patient?
a. to remove foreign body obstructions
b. to remove emesis from the airway
c. to hyperoxygenate the patient prior to
intubation
d. to assist a patient with his cough reflex
46. A risk
associated with tracheobronchial suctioning is:
a. edema.
b. bleeding.
c. hypoxia.
d. airway obstruction.
47. Insertion
of an nasogastric tube is contraindicated in patients:
a. with a tracheostomy.
b. who are awake.
c. with facial fractures.
d. with gastric distention.
48. Advantages
of a nasopharyngeal airway include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. it does not isolate the trachea.
b. it can be rapidly inserted and safely placed
blindly.
c. it may be used in the presence of a gag reflex.
d. you may suction through it.
Page 8
49. Nasopharyngeal
airways should NOT be used in the presence of:
a. airway obstruction.
b. basilar skull fracture.
c. patients with a gag reflex.
d. injury to the oral cavity.
50. Using a
nasopharyngeal airway that is too big can cause:
a. hyperventilation.
b. gastric distention.
c. airway obstruction.
d. the gag reflex.
51. One
disadvantage of an oropharyngeal airway is that:
a. air can pass around and through the device.
b. it makes suctioning the airway easier.
c. it does not prevent aspiration.
d. it can cause nosebleeds if inserted too
forcefully.
52. Which of
the following is a proper procedure to follow when inserting an oropharyngeal
airway in a patient without suspected cervical spine injury?
a. Lubricate the device before insertion.
b. Hyperextend the patient's head and neck.
c. Hold the device at the distal end and insert it
into the patient's mouth.
d. Once the top reaches the level of the soft
palate, gently rotate it 90 degrees until it comes to rest over the tongue.
53. Which of
the following indicates improper placement of the oropharyngeal airway?
a. The device advances out of the mouth during
ventilatory effort.
b. Good, equal breath sounds can be auscultated
bilaterally.
c. The chest rises and falls equally during
ventilatory efforts.
d. The tongue does not occlude the patient's
airway.
54. The
nonrebreather mask delivers concentrations of 80%Ä90% oxygen at a rate of:
a. 6 liters per minute.
b. 10 liters per minute.
c. 12 liters per minute.
d. 15 liters per minute.
Page 9
55. An
advantage of the two-person method of bag-valve-mask ventilation is that it:
a. reduces the risk of gastric distention.
b. creates a well-sealed mask.
c. increases compliance.
d. decreases the need to hyperoxygenate prior to
suctioning.
56. Which of
the following makes ventilation of the pediatric patient with a bag-valve mask
more difficult?
a. The pediatric patient is more combative.
b. The pediatric patient needs a lower
concentration of oxygen.
c. The bridge of the pediatric patient's nose is
smaller, making it difficult to create a good seal.
d. The pediatric patient's glottic opening is
smaller, causing decreased compliance.
57. The
automatic transport ventilator is contraindicated for all of the following
patients EXCEPT:
a. an intubated 4-year-old near drowning victim.
b. an intubated 17-year-old gun shot victim.
c. an intubated 34-year-old with adult respiratory
distress syndrome.
d. an intubated 56-year-old in pulmonary edema.
58. An oxygen
regulator used to transfer oxygen at high pressures from tank to tank is called
a(n):
a. low-pressure regulator.
b. high-pressure regulator.
c. therapy regulator.
d. oxygen regulator.
59. To
calculate how long the oxygen in a tank will last, divide the __________ by
liters per minute.
a. tank pressure in psi X 0.28
b. tank volume
c. tank volume X tank pressure
d. demand valve setting
60. You can
provide humidified oxygen to the patient by attaching a reservoir of:
a. sterile saline.
b. non-sterile saline.
c. sterile-water.
d. distilled water.
Page 10
61. What
percentage of oxygen is delivered by a simple face mask?
a. 95% to 100%
b. 80% to 90%
c. 60% to 80%
d. 40% to 60%
62. Which
oxygen delivery device supplies the highest concentration of oxygen?
a. nasal cannula
b. venturi mask
c. partial rebreather mask
d. nonrebreather mask
63. The patient
with COPD benefits from oxygen delivery through a venturi mask because:
a. its oxygen concentration is controlled more
carefully.
b. it is not used for long periods of time.
c. it is more comfortable on the patient's face.
d. the high flow of oxygen it delivers won't
affect the patient's hypoxic drive.
64. What is the
highest flow rate on a demand valve device?
a. 15 liters per minute
b. 20 liters per minute
c. 30 liters per minute
d. 40 liters per minute
65. A patient
with a tracheal stoma typically has increased secretions due to:
a. a decreased level of consciousness.
b. a less effective cough.
c. the size of the stoma.
d. decreased effectiveness of the immune system.
66. Extreme
caution should be used when suctioning a tracheal stoma in order to avoid:
a. soft-tissue swelling.
b. bleeding.
c. worsening a cough.
d. dislodging a mucous plug.
67. _______ is
suggested when a patient is deeply comatose or in cardiac arrest and when
proper positioning is difficult.
a. Nasotracheal intubation
b. Needle cricothyrotomy
c. Digital intubation
d. Laryngoscopy
Page 11
68. When
preparing for a pediatric intubation, it is important to remember that in the
pediatric patient the:
a. tongue is larger in relation to the oropharynx.
b. the glottic opening is lower and more posterior
in the neck.
c. the vocal cords slant downward, toward the
front of the head.
d. the narrowest part of the airway is the glottic
opening.
69. The depth
of insertion of the endotracheal tube for the pediatric patient should be:
a. 1-2 cm below the vocal cords.
b. 2-3 cm below the vocal cords.
c. 3-4 cm below the vocal cords.
d. 4-5 cm below the vocal cords.
70. An uncuffed
endotracheal tube is used in most pediatric patients because:
a. a cuffed tube can cause vomiting and
aspiration.
b. a cuffed tube is too big to pass through the
vocal cords.
c. the cricoid cartilage forms a suitable cuff.
d. the tissue of the pharynx can be damaged by the
cuff.
71. All of the
following are disadvantages of using a laryngeal mask airway EXCEPT:
a. it can be used on a patient who is
semiconscious.
b. it cannot be used on a patient with a gag
reflex.
c. it does not protect from regurgitation.
d. it does not protect against aspiration.
72. All of the
following are disadvantages of using a pharygno-tracheal lumen airway EXCEPT:
a. it does not protect the trachea from
aspiration.
b. it cannot be used on trauma patients.
c. it cannot be used on pediatric patients.
d. it can only be passed orally.
73. The
pharyngo-tracheal lumen airway should be removed if the patient:
a. vomits.
b. becomes tachycardic.
c. regains consciousness.
d. has poor compliance.
74. All of the
following are straight laryngoscope blades EXCEPT the:
a. Miller blade.
b. Wisconsin blade.
c. Flagg blade.
d. Mcintosh blade.
Page 12
75. The curved
laryngoscope blade is designed to fit into the:
a. uvula.
b. soft palate.
c. vallecula.
d. epiglottis.
76. The
straight laryngoscope blade is designed to fit under the:
a. uvula.
b. soft palate.
c. vallecula.
d. epiglottis.
77. Overinflating
the pilot balloon in an endotracheal tube can cause:
a. unequal breath sounds.
b. return of the gag reflex.
c. ischemia of the tracheal wall.
d. damage to teeth and gums.
78. Improper
use of a stylet with an endotracheal tube may result in:
a. aspiration of teeth.
b. damage to tissue.
c. return of gag reflex.
d. damage to teeth and gums.
79. All of the
following are indications for endotracheal intubation, EXCEPT:
a. respiratory arrest.
b. risk of aspiration.
c. airway obstruction.
d. spontaneous gag reflex.
80. With which
of the following patients should you NOT attempt endotracheal intubation unless
airway failure is imminent?
a. epiglottitis
b. croup
c. CHF
d. pulmonary embolism
81. All of the
following drugs can be administered through an endotracheal tube, EXCEPT:
a. naloxone.
b. lidocaine.
c. epinephrine.
d. dextrose.
Page 13
82. How many
seconds should you limit each attempt at endotracheal intubation before
reoxygenating the patient?
a. 20
b. 30
c. 40
d. 50
83. Which of
the following indicates endobronchial intubation?
a. equal breath sounds bilaterally
b. poor compliance
c. breath condensation in the endotracheal tube
d. absence of gurgling over the epigastrium
84. To
visualize the larynx during endotracheal intubation, place the patient in the:
a. sniffing position.
b. prone position.
c. left lateral recumbent position.
d. right lateral recumbent position.
85. An
endotracheal tube with a lighted stylet is useful when intubating:
a. an obese patient.
b. a trauma patient.
c. in a brightly lit room.
d. a patient in the prone position.
86. Before
attempting foreign body removal under direct laryngoscopy, you should attempt:
a. needle cricothyrotomy.
b. the Heimlich maneuver.
c. open cricothyrotomy.
d. nasogastric intubation.
87. Scenario:
You are at the scene where a car has crashed into a tree. The single patient is
unresponsive and barely breathing. A star-pattern on the windshield leads you
to suspect the patient's head hit the windshield during the crash. What method
would you attempt to secure this patient's airway?
a. digital intubation
b. laryngoscopy
c. rapid sequence intubation
d. nasotracheal intubation
Page 14
88. A
dual-lumen airway with a ventilation port for each lumen is called a(n):
a. laryngeal mask airway.
b. pharyngo-tracheal lumen airway.
c. esophageal obturator airway.
d. Esophageal Tracheal CombiTube.
89. Advantages
of the Esophageal Tracheal CombiTube include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. insertion is rapid and easy.
b. it can be used with pediatric patients.
c. it significantly diminishes gastric distention
and regurgitation.
d. it can be used on trauma patients.
90. Which
condition would preclude the use of succinylcholine for rapid sequence
intubation?
a. elevated sodium level
b. decreased sodium level
c. elevated potassium level
d. decreased potassium level
91. The
preferred neuromuscular agent for rapid sequence intubation is:
a. atracurium.
b. vecuronium.
c. succinylcholine.
d. pancuronium.
92. Potential
indications for nasotracheal intubation include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. suspected basilar skull fractures.
b. possible spinal injury.
c. significant angioedema.
d. obesity.
93. Blind
nasotracheal intubation requires that the patient is:
a. apneic.
b. breathing.
c. conscious.
d. unconscious.
94. The MOST
common indication for a surgical cricothyrotomy is:
a. foreign body obstruction.
b. rapid sequence intubation.
c. massive facial or neck trauma.
d. angioedema.
Page 15
95. In which of
the following patients would a cricothyrotomy be contraindicated?
a. a 10-year-old with mouth and neck trauma after
a bicycle accident
b. a 15-year-old with a foreign body airway
obstruction
c. a 34-year-old in respiratory arrest whose teeth
are clamped shut
d. a 74-year-old obese man who has had two
unsuccessful intubation attempts
96. Which of
the following is used to create a patent airway during open cricothyrotomy?
a. large-bore IV
b. endotracheal tube
c. nasogastric tube
d. oropharyngeal airway
97. To perform
a needle cricothyrotomy in a patient who does not have a suspected cervical
spine injury, the patient should be placed:
a. supine with head and neck hyperextended.
b. supine with head and neck in neutral position.
c. in the lateral recumbent position with head and
neck hyperextended.
d. in the lateral recumbent position with head and
neck in neutral position.
98. If blood is
noted in the needle on evaluation for proper placement during a needle
cricothyrotomy, you should:
a. advance the needle another centimeter and
advance the catheter.
b. inject air into the needle and advance the
catheter.
c. hold the needle steady and advance the
catheter.
d. reevaluate needle placement.
99. All of the
following are indications of proper endotracheal tube placement EXCEPT:
a. absence of breath sounds over the epigastrium.
b. presence of condensation inside the
endotracheal tube.
c. poor compliance with mechanical ventilation.
d. absence of phonation once the tube is placed.
100. To secure
the endotracheal tube once it is in the trachea, use:
a. tie-downs or tape.
b. surgical tubing.
c. rolled gauze.
d. roller bandaging.
Page 1
1. a
Module: 1
Lesson: 8
Objective: 10
2. c
Module: 1
Lesson: 8
Objective: 11
3. b
Module: 1
Lesson: 8
Objective: 14
4. c
Module: 1
Lesson: 8
Objective: 15
5. d
Module: 1
Lesson: 8
Objective: 15
6. d
Module: 1
Lesson: 8
Objective: 16
7. b
Module: 1
Lesson: 8
Objective: 17
8. c
Module: 1
Lesson: 8
Objective: 17
9. c
Module: 1
Lesson: 8
Objective: 17
10. b
Module: 1
Lesson: 8
Objective: 17
11. a
Module: 1
Lesson: 8
Objective: 18
12. c
Module: 1
Lesson: 8
Objective: 18
13. a
Module: 1
Lesson: 8
Objective: 19
Page 2
14. b
Module: 1
Lesson: 8
Objective: 20
15. c
Module: 1
Lesson: 8
Objective: 20
16. c
Module: 1
Lesson: 8
Objective: 20
17. a
Module: 1
Lesson: 8
Objective: 21
18. b
Module: 1
Lesson: 8
Objective: 21
19. a
Module: 1
Lesson: 8
Objective: 21
20. d
Module: 1
Lesson: 8
Objective: 21
21. c
Module: 1
Lesson: 8
Objective: 21
22. c
Module: 1
Lesson: 8
Objective: 21
23. b
Module: 1
Lesson: 8
Objective: 22
24. a
Module: 1
Lesson: 8
Objective: 22
25. b
Module: 1
Lesson: 8
Objective: 24
26. c
Module: 2
Lesson: 1
Objective: 1
Page 3
27. a
Module: 2
Lesson: 1
Objective: 2
28. a
Module: 2
Lesson: 1
Objective: 9
29. c
Module: 2
Lesson: 1
Objective: 18
30. c
Module: 2
Lesson: 1
Objective: 22
31. a
Module: 2
Lesson: 1
Objective: 23
32. d
Module: 2
Lesson: 1
Objective: 24
33. b
Module: 2
Lesson: 1
Objective: 25
34. d
Module: 2
Lesson: 1
Objective: 25
35. b
Module: 2
Lesson: 1
Objective: 25
36. c
Module: 2
Lesson: 1
Objective: 26
37. b
Module: 2
Lesson: 1
Objective: 26
38. c
Module: 2
Lesson: 1
Objective: 27
39. b
Module: 2
Lesson: 1
Objective: 27
Page 4
40. b
Module: 2
Lesson: 1
Objective: 27
41. d
Module: 2
Lesson: 1
Objective: 28
42. a
Module: 2
Lesson: 1
Objective: 30
43. c
Module: 2
Lesson: 1
Objective: 31
44. b
Module: 2
Lesson: 1
Objective: 31
45. b
Module: 2
Lesson: 1
Objective: 32
46. c
Module: 2
Lesson: 1
Objective: 36
47. c
Module: 2
Lesson: 1
Objective: 40
48. a
Module: 2
Lesson: 1
Objective: 42
49. b
Module: 2
Lesson: 1
Objective: 42
50. b
Module: 2
Lesson: 1
Objective: 42
51. c
Module: 2
Lesson: 1
Objective: 42
52. b
Module: 2
Lesson: 1
Objective: 42
Page 5
53. a
Module: 2
Lesson: 1
Objective: 42
54. d
Module: 2
Lesson: 1
Objective: 43
55. b
Module: 2
Lesson: 1
Objective: 44
56. c
Module: 2
Lesson: 1
Objective: 45
57. b
Module: 2
Lesson: 1
Objective: 46
58. b
Module: 2
Lesson: 1
Objective: 48
59. a
Module: 2
Lesson: 1
Objective: 49
60. a
Module: 2
Lesson: 1
Objective: 50
61. d
Module: 2
Lesson: 1
Objective: 51
62. d
Module: 2
Lesson: 1
Objective: 51
63. a
Module: 2
Lesson: 1
Objective: 51
64. d
Module: 2
Lesson: 1
Objective: 51
65. b
Module: 2
Lesson: 1
Objective: 52
Page 6
66. a
Module: 2
Lesson: 1
Objective: 54
67. c
Module: 2
Lesson: 1
Objective: 55
68. a
Module: 2
Lesson: 1
Objective: 56
69. b
Module: 2
Lesson: 1
Objective: 56
70. c
Module: 2
Lesson: 1
Objective: 56
71. a
Module: 2
Lesson: 1
Objective: 57
72. b
Module: 2
Lesson: 1
Objective: 57
73. c
Module: 2
Lesson: 1
Objective: 57
74. d
Module: 2
Lesson: 1
Objective: 58
75. c
Module: 2
Lesson: 1
Objective: 58
76. d
Module: 2
Lesson: 1
Objective: 58
77. c
Module: 2
Lesson: 1
Objective: 58
78. b
Module: 2
Lesson: 1
Objective: 58
Page 7
79. d
Module: 2
Lesson: 1
Objective: 58
80. a
Module: 2
Lesson: 1
Objective: 58
81. d
Module: 2
Lesson: 1
Objective: 58
82. b
Module: 2
Lesson: 1
Objective: 58
83. b
Module: 2
Lesson: 1
Objective: 58
84. a
Module: 2
Lesson: 1
Objective: 58
85. b
Module: 2
Lesson: 1
Objective: 58
86. b
Module: 2
Lesson: 1
Objective: 59
87. a
Module: 2
Lesson: 1
Objective: 63
88. d
Module: 2
Lesson: 1
Objective: 64
89. b
Module: 2
Lesson: 1
Objective: 64
90. c
Module: 2
Lesson: 1
Objective: 65
91. c
Module: 2
Lesson: 1
Objective: 65
Page 8
92. a
Module: 2
Lesson: 1
Objective: 69
93. b
Module: 2
Lesson: 1
Objective: 69
94. c
Module: 2
Lesson: 1
Objective: 70
95. a
Module: 2
Lesson: 1
Objective: 70
96. b
Module: 2
Lesson: 1
Objective: 71
97. a
Module: 2
Lesson: 1
Objective: 72
98. d
Module: 2
Lesson: 1
Objective: 72
99. c
Module: 2
Lesson: 1
Objective: 73
100. a
Module: 2
Lesson: 1
Objective: 74